Why does being intoxicated absolve women from responsibility in ual situations but not men?

I am asking all of those who say a man is guilty of if he has with a woman who is intoxicated. Mind you I said intoxicated not ped out. It is always said " a woman cannot give consent while intoxicated" If that is really the case, should women have to hand over their cash and debit / credit cards once they become intoxicated? I mean if they can't consent to than they surely can't consent to any financial / monetary transactions. Why is there never any consideration given to the fact that the man may be just as (or more) intoxicated than the woman?